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CompTIA SY0-701 Real Exam Questions
The questions for SY0-701 were last updated at Dec 08,2024.
- Exam Code: SY0-701
- Exam Name: CompTIA Security+
- Certification Provider: CompTIA
- Latest update: Dec 08,2024
Question #11
Which of the following is the most likely outcome if a large bank fails an internal PCI DSS compliance assessment?
- A . Fines
- B . Audit findings
- C . Sanctions
- D . Reputation damage
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
PCI DSS is the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard, which is a set of security requirements for organizations that store, process, or transmit cardholder data. PCI DSS aims to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of cardholder data and prevent fraud, identity theft, and data breaches. PCI DSS is enforced by the payment card brands, such as Visa, Mastercard, American Express, Discover, and JCB, and applies to all entities involved in the payment card ecosystem, such as merchants, acquirers, issuers, processors, service providers, and payment applications.
If a large bank fails an internal PCI DSS compliance assessment, the most likely outcome is that the bank will face fines from the payment card brands. An internal PCI DSS compliance assessment is a self-assessment that the bank performs to evaluate its own compliance with the PCI DSS requirements. The bank must submit the results of the internal assessment to the payment card brands or their designated agents, such as acquirers or qualified security assessors (QSAs). If the internal assessment reveals that the bank is not compliant with the PCI DSS requirements, the payment card brands may impose fines on the bank as a penalty for violating the PCI DSS contract. The amount and frequency of the fines may vary depending on the severity and duration of the non-compliance, the number and type of cardholder data compromised, and the level of cooperation and remediation from the bank. The fines can range from thousands to millions of dollars per month, and can increase over time if the non-compliance is not resolved.
The other options are not correct because they are not the most likely outcomes if a large bank fails an internal PCI DSS compliance assessment.
B. Audit findings. Audit findings are the results of an external PCI DSS compliance assessment that is performed by a QSA or an approved scanning vendor (ASV). An external assessment is required for certain entities that handle a large volume of cardholder data or have a history of non-compliance. An external assessment may also be triggered by a security incident or a request from the payment card brands. Audit findings may reveal the gaps and weaknesses in the bank’s security controls and recommend corrective actions to achieve compliance. However, audit findings are not the outcome of an internal assessment, which is performed by the bank itself.
C. Sanctions. Sanctions are the measures that the payment card brands may take against the bank if the bank fails to pay the fines or comply with the PCI DSS requirements. Sanctions may include increasing the fines, suspending or terminating the bank’s ability to accept or process payment cards, or revoking the bank’s PCI DSS certification. Sanctions are not the immediate outcome of an internal assessment, but rather the possible consequence of prolonged or repeated non-compliance.
D. Reputation damage. Reputation damage is the loss of trust and credibility that the bank may suffer from its customers, partners, regulators, and the public if the bank fails an internal PCI DSS compliance assessment. Reputation damage may affect the bank’s brand image, customer loyalty, market share, and profitability. Reputation damage is not a direct outcome of an internal assessment, but rather a potential risk that the bank may face if the non-compliance is exposed or exploited by malicious actors.
Reference = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 8: Governance, Risk, and Compliance, page 388. Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 8.2: Compliance and Controls, video: PCI DSS (5:12). PCI Security Standards Council, PCI DSS Quick Reference Guide, page 4. PCI Security Standards Council, PCI DSS FAQs, question 8. PCI Security Standards Council, PCI DSS FAQs, question 9. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 10. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 11. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 12. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 13. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 14. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 15. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 16. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 17. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 18. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 19. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 20. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 21. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 22. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 23. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 24. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 25. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 26. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 27. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 28. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 29. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 30. [PCI Security Standards Council]
A
Explanation:
PCI DSS is the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard, which is a set of security requirements for organizations that store, process, or transmit cardholder data. PCI DSS aims to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of cardholder data and prevent fraud, identity theft, and data breaches. PCI DSS is enforced by the payment card brands, such as Visa, Mastercard, American Express, Discover, and JCB, and applies to all entities involved in the payment card ecosystem, such as merchants, acquirers, issuers, processors, service providers, and payment applications.
If a large bank fails an internal PCI DSS compliance assessment, the most likely outcome is that the bank will face fines from the payment card brands. An internal PCI DSS compliance assessment is a self-assessment that the bank performs to evaluate its own compliance with the PCI DSS requirements. The bank must submit the results of the internal assessment to the payment card brands or their designated agents, such as acquirers or qualified security assessors (QSAs). If the internal assessment reveals that the bank is not compliant with the PCI DSS requirements, the payment card brands may impose fines on the bank as a penalty for violating the PCI DSS contract. The amount and frequency of the fines may vary depending on the severity and duration of the non-compliance, the number and type of cardholder data compromised, and the level of cooperation and remediation from the bank. The fines can range from thousands to millions of dollars per month, and can increase over time if the non-compliance is not resolved.
The other options are not correct because they are not the most likely outcomes if a large bank fails an internal PCI DSS compliance assessment.
B. Audit findings. Audit findings are the results of an external PCI DSS compliance assessment that is performed by a QSA or an approved scanning vendor (ASV). An external assessment is required for certain entities that handle a large volume of cardholder data or have a history of non-compliance. An external assessment may also be triggered by a security incident or a request from the payment card brands. Audit findings may reveal the gaps and weaknesses in the bank’s security controls and recommend corrective actions to achieve compliance. However, audit findings are not the outcome of an internal assessment, which is performed by the bank itself.
C. Sanctions. Sanctions are the measures that the payment card brands may take against the bank if the bank fails to pay the fines or comply with the PCI DSS requirements. Sanctions may include increasing the fines, suspending or terminating the bank’s ability to accept or process payment cards, or revoking the bank’s PCI DSS certification. Sanctions are not the immediate outcome of an internal assessment, but rather the possible consequence of prolonged or repeated non-compliance.
D. Reputation damage. Reputation damage is the loss of trust and credibility that the bank may suffer from its customers, partners, regulators, and the public if the bank fails an internal PCI DSS compliance assessment. Reputation damage may affect the bank’s brand image, customer loyalty, market share, and profitability. Reputation damage is not a direct outcome of an internal assessment, but rather a potential risk that the bank may face if the non-compliance is exposed or exploited by malicious actors.
Reference = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 8: Governance, Risk, and Compliance, page 388. Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 8.2: Compliance and Controls, video: PCI DSS (5:12). PCI Security Standards Council, PCI DSS Quick Reference Guide, page 4. PCI Security Standards Council, PCI DSS FAQs, question 8. PCI Security Standards Council, PCI DSS FAQs, question 9. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 10. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 11. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 12. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 13. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 14. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 15. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 16. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 17. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 18. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 19. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 20. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 21. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 22. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 23. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 24. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 25. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 26. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 27. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 28. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 29. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 30. [PCI Security Standards Council]
Question #11
Which of the following is the most likely outcome if a large bank fails an internal PCI DSS compliance assessment?
- A . Fines
- B . Audit findings
- C . Sanctions
- D . Reputation damage
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
PCI DSS is the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard, which is a set of security requirements for organizations that store, process, or transmit cardholder data. PCI DSS aims to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of cardholder data and prevent fraud, identity theft, and data breaches. PCI DSS is enforced by the payment card brands, such as Visa, Mastercard, American Express, Discover, and JCB, and applies to all entities involved in the payment card ecosystem, such as merchants, acquirers, issuers, processors, service providers, and payment applications.
If a large bank fails an internal PCI DSS compliance assessment, the most likely outcome is that the bank will face fines from the payment card brands. An internal PCI DSS compliance assessment is a self-assessment that the bank performs to evaluate its own compliance with the PCI DSS requirements. The bank must submit the results of the internal assessment to the payment card brands or their designated agents, such as acquirers or qualified security assessors (QSAs). If the internal assessment reveals that the bank is not compliant with the PCI DSS requirements, the payment card brands may impose fines on the bank as a penalty for violating the PCI DSS contract. The amount and frequency of the fines may vary depending on the severity and duration of the non-compliance, the number and type of cardholder data compromised, and the level of cooperation and remediation from the bank. The fines can range from thousands to millions of dollars per month, and can increase over time if the non-compliance is not resolved.
The other options are not correct because they are not the most likely outcomes if a large bank fails an internal PCI DSS compliance assessment.
B. Audit findings. Audit findings are the results of an external PCI DSS compliance assessment that is performed by a QSA or an approved scanning vendor (ASV). An external assessment is required for certain entities that handle a large volume of cardholder data or have a history of non-compliance. An external assessment may also be triggered by a security incident or a request from the payment card brands. Audit findings may reveal the gaps and weaknesses in the bank’s security controls and recommend corrective actions to achieve compliance. However, audit findings are not the outcome of an internal assessment, which is performed by the bank itself.
C. Sanctions. Sanctions are the measures that the payment card brands may take against the bank if the bank fails to pay the fines or comply with the PCI DSS requirements. Sanctions may include increasing the fines, suspending or terminating the bank’s ability to accept or process payment cards, or revoking the bank’s PCI DSS certification. Sanctions are not the immediate outcome of an internal assessment, but rather the possible consequence of prolonged or repeated non-compliance.
D. Reputation damage. Reputation damage is the loss of trust and credibility that the bank may suffer from its customers, partners, regulators, and the public if the bank fails an internal PCI DSS compliance assessment. Reputation damage may affect the bank’s brand image, customer loyalty, market share, and profitability. Reputation damage is not a direct outcome of an internal assessment, but rather a potential risk that the bank may face if the non-compliance is exposed or exploited by malicious actors.
Reference = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 8: Governance, Risk, and Compliance, page 388. Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 8.2: Compliance and Controls, video: PCI DSS (5:12). PCI Security Standards Council, PCI DSS Quick Reference Guide, page 4. PCI Security Standards Council, PCI DSS FAQs, question 8. PCI Security Standards Council, PCI DSS FAQs, question 9. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 10. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 11. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 12. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 13. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 14. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 15. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 16. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 17. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 18. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 19. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 20. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 21. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 22. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 23. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 24. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 25. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 26. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 27. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 28. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 29. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 30. [PCI Security Standards Council]
A
Explanation:
PCI DSS is the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard, which is a set of security requirements for organizations that store, process, or transmit cardholder data. PCI DSS aims to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of cardholder data and prevent fraud, identity theft, and data breaches. PCI DSS is enforced by the payment card brands, such as Visa, Mastercard, American Express, Discover, and JCB, and applies to all entities involved in the payment card ecosystem, such as merchants, acquirers, issuers, processors, service providers, and payment applications.
If a large bank fails an internal PCI DSS compliance assessment, the most likely outcome is that the bank will face fines from the payment card brands. An internal PCI DSS compliance assessment is a self-assessment that the bank performs to evaluate its own compliance with the PCI DSS requirements. The bank must submit the results of the internal assessment to the payment card brands or their designated agents, such as acquirers or qualified security assessors (QSAs). If the internal assessment reveals that the bank is not compliant with the PCI DSS requirements, the payment card brands may impose fines on the bank as a penalty for violating the PCI DSS contract. The amount and frequency of the fines may vary depending on the severity and duration of the non-compliance, the number and type of cardholder data compromised, and the level of cooperation and remediation from the bank. The fines can range from thousands to millions of dollars per month, and can increase over time if the non-compliance is not resolved.
The other options are not correct because they are not the most likely outcomes if a large bank fails an internal PCI DSS compliance assessment.
B. Audit findings. Audit findings are the results of an external PCI DSS compliance assessment that is performed by a QSA or an approved scanning vendor (ASV). An external assessment is required for certain entities that handle a large volume of cardholder data or have a history of non-compliance. An external assessment may also be triggered by a security incident or a request from the payment card brands. Audit findings may reveal the gaps and weaknesses in the bank’s security controls and recommend corrective actions to achieve compliance. However, audit findings are not the outcome of an internal assessment, which is performed by the bank itself.
C. Sanctions. Sanctions are the measures that the payment card brands may take against the bank if the bank fails to pay the fines or comply with the PCI DSS requirements. Sanctions may include increasing the fines, suspending or terminating the bank’s ability to accept or process payment cards, or revoking the bank’s PCI DSS certification. Sanctions are not the immediate outcome of an internal assessment, but rather the possible consequence of prolonged or repeated non-compliance.
D. Reputation damage. Reputation damage is the loss of trust and credibility that the bank may suffer from its customers, partners, regulators, and the public if the bank fails an internal PCI DSS compliance assessment. Reputation damage may affect the bank’s brand image, customer loyalty, market share, and profitability. Reputation damage is not a direct outcome of an internal assessment, but rather a potential risk that the bank may face if the non-compliance is exposed or exploited by malicious actors.
Reference = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 8: Governance, Risk, and Compliance, page 388. Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 8.2: Compliance and Controls, video: PCI DSS (5:12). PCI Security Standards Council, PCI DSS Quick Reference Guide, page 4. PCI Security Standards Council, PCI DSS FAQs, question 8. PCI Security Standards Council, PCI DSS FAQs, question 9. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 10. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 11. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 12. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 13. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 14. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 15. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 16. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 17. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 18. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 19. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 20. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 21. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 22. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 23. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 24. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 25. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 26. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 27. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 28. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 29. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 30. [PCI Security Standards Council]
Question #13
A company needs to provide administrative access to internal resources while minimizing the traffic allowed through the security boundary.
Which of the following methods is most secure?
- A . Implementing a bastion host
- B . Deploying a perimeter network
- C . Installing a WAF
- D . Utilizing single sign-on
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
A bastion host is a special-purpose server that is designed to withstand attacks and provide secure access to internal resources. A bastion host is usually placed on the edge of a network, acting as a gateway or proxy to the internal network. A bastion host can be configured to allow only certain types of traffic, such as SSH or HTTP, and block all other traffic. A bastion host can also run security software such as firewalls, intrusion detection systems, and antivirus programs to monitor and filter incoming and outgoing traffic. A bastion host can provide administrative access to internal resources by requiring strong authentication and encryption, and by logging all activities for auditing purposes12.
A bastion host is the most secure method among the given options because it minimizes the traffic allowed through the security boundary and provides a single point of control and defense. A bastion host can also isolate the internal network from direct exposure to the internet or other untrusted networks, reducing the attack surface and the risk of compromise3.
Deploying a perimeter network is not the correct answer, because a perimeter network is a network segment that separates the internal network from the external network. A perimeter network usually hosts public-facing services such as web servers, email servers, or DNS servers that need to be accessible from the internet. A perimeter network does not provide administrative access to internal resources, but rather protects them from unauthorized access. A perimeter network can also increase the complexity and cost of network management and security4.
Installing a WAF is not the correct answer, because a WAF is a security tool that protects web applications from common web-based attacks by monitoring, filtering, and blocking HTTP traffic. A WAF can prevent attacks such as cross-site scripting, SQL injection, or file inclusion, among others. A WAF does not provide administrative access to internal resources, but rather protects them from web application vulnerabilities. A WAF is also not a comprehensive solution for network security, as it only operates at the application layer and does not protect against other types of attacks or threats5.
Utilizing single sign-on is not the correct answer, because single sign-on is a method of authentication that allows users to access multiple sites, services, or applications with one username and password. Single sign-on can simplify the sign-in process for users and reduce the number of passwords they have to remember and manage. Single sign-on does not provide administrative access to internal resources, but rather enables access to various resources that the user is authorized to use. Single sign-on can also introduce security risks if the user’s credentials are compromised or if the single sign-on provider is breached6.
Reference = 1: Bastion host – Wikipedia, 2: 14 Best Practices to Secure SSH Bastion Host – goteleport.com, 3: The Importance Of Bastion Hosts In Network Security, 4: What is the network perimeter? | Cloudflare, 5: What is a WAF? | Web Application Firewall explained, 6: [What is single sign-on (SSO)? – Definition from WhatIs.com]
A
Explanation:
A bastion host is a special-purpose server that is designed to withstand attacks and provide secure access to internal resources. A bastion host is usually placed on the edge of a network, acting as a gateway or proxy to the internal network. A bastion host can be configured to allow only certain types of traffic, such as SSH or HTTP, and block all other traffic. A bastion host can also run security software such as firewalls, intrusion detection systems, and antivirus programs to monitor and filter incoming and outgoing traffic. A bastion host can provide administrative access to internal resources by requiring strong authentication and encryption, and by logging all activities for auditing purposes12.
A bastion host is the most secure method among the given options because it minimizes the traffic allowed through the security boundary and provides a single point of control and defense. A bastion host can also isolate the internal network from direct exposure to the internet or other untrusted networks, reducing the attack surface and the risk of compromise3.
Deploying a perimeter network is not the correct answer, because a perimeter network is a network segment that separates the internal network from the external network. A perimeter network usually hosts public-facing services such as web servers, email servers, or DNS servers that need to be accessible from the internet. A perimeter network does not provide administrative access to internal resources, but rather protects them from unauthorized access. A perimeter network can also increase the complexity and cost of network management and security4.
Installing a WAF is not the correct answer, because a WAF is a security tool that protects web applications from common web-based attacks by monitoring, filtering, and blocking HTTP traffic. A WAF can prevent attacks such as cross-site scripting, SQL injection, or file inclusion, among others. A WAF does not provide administrative access to internal resources, but rather protects them from web application vulnerabilities. A WAF is also not a comprehensive solution for network security, as it only operates at the application layer and does not protect against other types of attacks or threats5.
Utilizing single sign-on is not the correct answer, because single sign-on is a method of authentication that allows users to access multiple sites, services, or applications with one username and password. Single sign-on can simplify the sign-in process for users and reduce the number of passwords they have to remember and manage. Single sign-on does not provide administrative access to internal resources, but rather enables access to various resources that the user is authorized to use. Single sign-on can also introduce security risks if the user’s credentials are compromised or if the single sign-on provider is breached6.
Reference = 1: Bastion host – Wikipedia, 2: 14 Best Practices to Secure SSH Bastion Host – goteleport.com, 3: The Importance Of Bastion Hosts In Network Security, 4: What is the network perimeter? | Cloudflare, 5: What is a WAF? | Web Application Firewall explained, 6: [What is single sign-on (SSO)? – Definition from WhatIs.com]
Question #14
Which of the following provides the details about the terms of a test with a third-party penetration tester?
- A . Rules of engagement
- B . Supply chain analysis
- C . Right to audit clause
- D . Due diligence
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Rules of engagement are the detailed guidelines and constraints regarding the execution of information security testing, such as penetration testing. They define the scope, objectives, methods, and boundaries of the test, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the testers and the clients. Rules of engagement help to ensure that the test is conducted in a legal, ethical, and professional manner, and that the results are accurate and reliable. Rules of engagement typically include the following elements:
The type and scope of the test, such as black box, white box, or gray box, and the target systems, networks, applications, or data.
The client contact details and the communication channels for reporting issues, incidents, or emergencies during the test.
The testing team credentials and the authorized tools and techniques that they can use.
The sensitive data handling and encryption requirements, such as how to store, transmit, or dispose of any data obtained during the test.
The status meeting and report schedules, formats, and recipients, as well as the confidentiality and non-disclosure agreements for the test results.
The timeline and duration of the test, and the hours of operation and testing windows.
The professional and ethical behavior expectations for the testers, such as avoiding unnecessary damage, disruption, or disclosure of information.
Supply chain analysis, right to audit clause, and due diligence are not related to the terms of a test with a third-party penetration tester. Supply chain analysis is the process of evaluating the security and risk posture of the suppliers and partners in a business network. Right to audit clause is a provision in a contract that gives one party the right to audit another party to verify their compliance with the contract terms and conditions. Due diligence is the process of identifying and addressing the cyber risks that a potential vendor or partner brings to an organization.
Reference = https://www.yeahhub.com/every-penetration-tester-you-should-know-about-this-rules-of-engagement/
https://bing.com/search?q=rules+of+engagement+penetration+testing
A
Explanation:
Rules of engagement are the detailed guidelines and constraints regarding the execution of information security testing, such as penetration testing. They define the scope, objectives, methods, and boundaries of the test, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the testers and the clients. Rules of engagement help to ensure that the test is conducted in a legal, ethical, and professional manner, and that the results are accurate and reliable. Rules of engagement typically include the following elements:
The type and scope of the test, such as black box, white box, or gray box, and the target systems, networks, applications, or data.
The client contact details and the communication channels for reporting issues, incidents, or emergencies during the test.
The testing team credentials and the authorized tools and techniques that they can use.
The sensitive data handling and encryption requirements, such as how to store, transmit, or dispose of any data obtained during the test.
The status meeting and report schedules, formats, and recipients, as well as the confidentiality and non-disclosure agreements for the test results.
The timeline and duration of the test, and the hours of operation and testing windows.
The professional and ethical behavior expectations for the testers, such as avoiding unnecessary damage, disruption, or disclosure of information.
Supply chain analysis, right to audit clause, and due diligence are not related to the terms of a test with a third-party penetration tester. Supply chain analysis is the process of evaluating the security and risk posture of the suppliers and partners in a business network. Right to audit clause is a provision in a contract that gives one party the right to audit another party to verify their compliance with the contract terms and conditions. Due diligence is the process of identifying and addressing the cyber risks that a potential vendor or partner brings to an organization.
Reference = https://www.yeahhub.com/every-penetration-tester-you-should-know-about-this-rules-of-engagement/
https://bing.com/search?q=rules+of+engagement+penetration+testing
Question #15
A software development manager wants to ensure the authenticity of the code created by the company.
Which of the following options is the most appropriate?
- A . Testing input validation on the user input fields
- B . Performing code signing on company-developed software
- C . Performing static code analysis on the software
- D . Ensuring secure cookies are use
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Code signing is a technique that uses cryptography to verify the authenticity and integrity of the code created by the company. Code signing involves applying a digital signature to the code using a private key that only the company possesses. The digital signature can be verified by anyone who has the corresponding public key, which can be distributed through a trusted certificate authority. Code signing can prevent unauthorized modifications, tampering, or malware injection into the code, and it can also assure the users that the code is from a legitimate source.
Reference = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 74. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3.2, page 11. Application Security C SY0-601 CompTIA Security+: 3.2
B
Explanation:
Code signing is a technique that uses cryptography to verify the authenticity and integrity of the code created by the company. Code signing involves applying a digital signature to the code using a private key that only the company possesses. The digital signature can be verified by anyone who has the corresponding public key, which can be distributed through a trusted certificate authority. Code signing can prevent unauthorized modifications, tampering, or malware injection into the code, and it can also assure the users that the code is from a legitimate source.
Reference = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 74. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3.2, page 11. Application Security C SY0-601 CompTIA Security+: 3.2
Question #16
An analyst is evaluating the implementation of Zero Trust principles within the data plane.
Which of the following would be most relevant for the analyst to evaluate?
- A . Secured zones
- B . Subject role
- C . Adaptive identity
- D . Threat scope reduction
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The data plane, also known as the forwarding plane, is the part of the network that carries user traffic and data. It is responsible for moving packets from one device to another based on the routing and switching decisions made by the control plane. The data plane is a critical component of the Zero Trust architecture, as it is where most of the attacks and breaches occur. Therefore, implementing Zero Trust principles within the data plane can help to improve the security and resilience of the network.
One of the key principles of Zero Trust is to assume breach and minimize the blast radius and segment access. This means that the network should be divided into smaller and isolated segments or zones, each with its own security policies and controls. This way, if one segment is compromised, the attacker cannot easily move laterally to other segments and access more resources or data. This principle is also known as threat scope reduction, as it reduces the scope and impact of a potential threat.
The other options are not as relevant for the data plane as threat scope reduction. Secured zones are a concept related to the control plane, which is the part of the network that makes routing and switching decisions. Subject role is a concept related to the identity plane, which is the part of the network that authenticates and authorizes users and devices. Adaptive identity is a concept related to the policy plane, which is the part of the network that defines and enforces the security policies and rules.
Reference = https://bing.com/search?q=Zero+Trust+data+plane
https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/security/zero-trust/deploy/data
D
Explanation:
The data plane, also known as the forwarding plane, is the part of the network that carries user traffic and data. It is responsible for moving packets from one device to another based on the routing and switching decisions made by the control plane. The data plane is a critical component of the Zero Trust architecture, as it is where most of the attacks and breaches occur. Therefore, implementing Zero Trust principles within the data plane can help to improve the security and resilience of the network.
One of the key principles of Zero Trust is to assume breach and minimize the blast radius and segment access. This means that the network should be divided into smaller and isolated segments or zones, each with its own security policies and controls. This way, if one segment is compromised, the attacker cannot easily move laterally to other segments and access more resources or data. This principle is also known as threat scope reduction, as it reduces the scope and impact of a potential threat.
The other options are not as relevant for the data plane as threat scope reduction. Secured zones are a concept related to the control plane, which is the part of the network that makes routing and switching decisions. Subject role is a concept related to the identity plane, which is the part of the network that authenticates and authorizes users and devices. Adaptive identity is a concept related to the policy plane, which is the part of the network that defines and enforces the security policies and rules.
Reference = https://bing.com/search?q=Zero+Trust+data+plane
https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/security/zero-trust/deploy/data
Question #17
A systems administrator works for a local hospital and needs to ensure patient data is protected and secure.
Which of the following data classifications should be used to secure patient data?
- A . Private
- B . Critical
- C . Sensitive
- D . Public
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Data classification is a process of categorizing data based on its level of sensitivity, value, and impact to the organization if compromised. Data classification helps to determine the appropriate security controls and policies to protect the data from unauthorized access, disclosure, or modification. Different organizations may use different data classification schemes, but a common one is the four-tier model, which consists of the following categories: public, private, sensitive, and critical.
Public data is data that is intended for public access and disclosure, and has no impact to the organization if compromised. Examples of public data include marketing materials, press releases, and public web pages.
Private data is data that is intended for internal use only, and has a low to moderate impact to the
organization if compromised. Examples of private data include employee records, financial reports, and internal policies.
Sensitive data is data that is intended for authorized use only, and has a high impact to the organization if compromised. Examples of sensitive data include personal information, health records, and intellectual property.
Critical data is data that is essential for the organization’s operations and survival, and has a severe impact to the organization if compromised. Examples of critical data include encryption keys, disaster recovery plans, and system backups.
Patient data is a type of sensitive data, as it contains personal and health information that is protected by law and ethical standards. Patient data should be used only by authorized personnel for legitimate purposes, and should be secured from unauthorized access, disclosure, or modification. Therefore, the systems administrator should use the sensitive data classification to secure patient data.
Reference = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 90-91; Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 5.5 – Data Classifications, 0:00 – 4:30.
C
Explanation:
Data classification is a process of categorizing data based on its level of sensitivity, value, and impact to the organization if compromised. Data classification helps to determine the appropriate security controls and policies to protect the data from unauthorized access, disclosure, or modification. Different organizations may use different data classification schemes, but a common one is the four-tier model, which consists of the following categories: public, private, sensitive, and critical.
Public data is data that is intended for public access and disclosure, and has no impact to the organization if compromised. Examples of public data include marketing materials, press releases, and public web pages.
Private data is data that is intended for internal use only, and has a low to moderate impact to the
organization if compromised. Examples of private data include employee records, financial reports, and internal policies.
Sensitive data is data that is intended for authorized use only, and has a high impact to the organization if compromised. Examples of sensitive data include personal information, health records, and intellectual property.
Critical data is data that is essential for the organization’s operations and survival, and has a severe impact to the organization if compromised. Examples of critical data include encryption keys, disaster recovery plans, and system backups.
Patient data is a type of sensitive data, as it contains personal and health information that is protected by law and ethical standards. Patient data should be used only by authorized personnel for legitimate purposes, and should be secured from unauthorized access, disclosure, or modification. Therefore, the systems administrator should use the sensitive data classification to secure patient data.
Reference = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 90-91; Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 5.5 – Data Classifications, 0:00 – 4:30.
Question #18
Which of the following is used to add extra complexity before using a one-way data transformation algorithm?
- A . Key stretching
- B . Data masking
- C . Steganography
- D . Salting
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Salting is the process of adding extra random data to a password or other data before applying a one-way data transformation algorithm, such as a hash function. Salting increases the complexity and randomness of the input data, making it harder for attackers to guess or crack the original data using precomputed tables or brute force methods. Salting also helps prevent identical passwords from producing identical hash values, which could reveal the passwords to attackers who have access to the hashed data. Salting is commonly used to protect passwords stored in databases or transmitted over networks.
Reference =
Passwords technical overview
Encryption, hashing, salting C what’s the difference?
Salt (cryptography)
D
Explanation:
Salting is the process of adding extra random data to a password or other data before applying a one-way data transformation algorithm, such as a hash function. Salting increases the complexity and randomness of the input data, making it harder for attackers to guess or crack the original data using precomputed tables or brute force methods. Salting also helps prevent identical passwords from producing identical hash values, which could reveal the passwords to attackers who have access to the hashed data. Salting is commonly used to protect passwords stored in databases or transmitted over networks.
Reference =
Passwords technical overview
Encryption, hashing, salting C what’s the difference?
Salt (cryptography)
Question #19
Which of the following must be considered when designing a high-availability network? (Choose two).
- A . Ease of recovery
- B . Ability to patch
- C . Physical isolation
- D . Responsiveness
- E . Attack surface
- F . Extensible authentication
Correct Answer: A, E
A, E
Explanation:
A high-availability network is a network that is designed to minimize downtime and ensure continuous operation even in the event of a failure or disruption.
A high-availability network must consider the following factors12:
Ease of recovery: This refers to the ability of the network to restore normal functionality quickly and efficiently after a failure or disruption. Ease of recovery can be achieved by implementing backup and restore procedures, redundancy and failover mechanisms, fault tolerance and resilience, and disaster recovery plans.
Attack surface: This refers to the amount of exposure and vulnerability of the network to potential threats and attacks. Attack surface can be reduced by implementing security controls such as firewalls, encryption, authentication, access control, segmentation, and hardening. The other options are not directly related to high-availability network design:
Ability to patch: This refers to the process of updating and fixing software components to address security issues, bugs, or performance improvements. Ability to patch is important for maintaining
the security and functionality of the network, but it is not a specific factor for high-availability network design.
Physical isolation: This refers to the separation of network components or devices from other networks or physical environments. Physical isolation can enhance the security and performance of the network, but it can also reduce the availability and accessibility of the network resources. Responsiveness: This refers to the speed and quality of the network’s performance and service delivery. Responsiveness can be measured by metrics such as latency, throughput, jitter, and packet loss. Responsiveness is important for ensuring customer satisfaction and user experience, but it is not a specific factor for high-availability network design.
Extensible authentication: This refers to the ability of the network to support multiple and flexible authentication methods and protocols. Extensible authentication can improve the security and convenience of the network, but it is not a specific factor for high-availability network design.
Reference = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 972: High Availability C CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 C 3.4, video by Professor Messer.
A, E
Explanation:
A high-availability network is a network that is designed to minimize downtime and ensure continuous operation even in the event of a failure or disruption.
A high-availability network must consider the following factors12:
Ease of recovery: This refers to the ability of the network to restore normal functionality quickly and efficiently after a failure or disruption. Ease of recovery can be achieved by implementing backup and restore procedures, redundancy and failover mechanisms, fault tolerance and resilience, and disaster recovery plans.
Attack surface: This refers to the amount of exposure and vulnerability of the network to potential threats and attacks. Attack surface can be reduced by implementing security controls such as firewalls, encryption, authentication, access control, segmentation, and hardening. The other options are not directly related to high-availability network design:
Ability to patch: This refers to the process of updating and fixing software components to address security issues, bugs, or performance improvements. Ability to patch is important for maintaining
the security and functionality of the network, but it is not a specific factor for high-availability network design.
Physical isolation: This refers to the separation of network components or devices from other networks or physical environments. Physical isolation can enhance the security and performance of the network, but it can also reduce the availability and accessibility of the network resources. Responsiveness: This refers to the speed and quality of the network’s performance and service delivery. Responsiveness can be measured by metrics such as latency, throughput, jitter, and packet loss. Responsiveness is important for ensuring customer satisfaction and user experience, but it is not a specific factor for high-availability network design.
Extensible authentication: This refers to the ability of the network to support multiple and flexible authentication methods and protocols. Extensible authentication can improve the security and convenience of the network, but it is not a specific factor for high-availability network design.
Reference = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 972: High Availability C CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 C 3.4, video by Professor Messer.